[I can now ask: What does this imply?
Does Christianity embrace both “Divine Providence3” and “the possibility that ‘exclusion’ may be one of the possibilities inherent in divine causation1”.
How can this be?
How can God reveal His creation only through a method of inquiry that excludes Him as a cause?
How could “Divine Providence3” bring “any form of inquiry2” into “the possibility that you will succeed only when you methodologically exclude Divine Providence1“?
It makes no sense, unless, of course, it fits the premodern scholastic definition of “God’s Passive Will”.]